DO we say “If I haven’t called you tomorrow before 10, please text me.” or “If I do not call you tomorrow before 10 ...”?

Do we say “call to a number” or “text to a number”? – Ahmad

Let me say first of all that it would be better for you to use “by 10” rather than “before 10” in your sentence, because you mention a definite time after which you ask the person you are talking to to do something (here it is “text me”). If you use “before”, she may text you at nine, for example, which is still “before 10”. Although “by” can also mean “before”, here it means “at”. However, in another sentence, it may be all right to use “before”, e.g. “Please be here before 10.”

“If I haven’t called you tomorrow by 10, please text me.” is the correct sentence to use, although informally, “If I don’t call ...” is often used.

On your second question, we “call a number” and “text a number”. Since “text” (send a text message or SMS to) is a fairly new verb, let me give you an example of its use as a verb, from the Internet:

“Because a main character had spoken the number slowly, curious viewers had plenty of time to note it down themselves and then text the number.” (from a BBC website)

Reserving a seat

I’m confused about the following phrase since I have found that both are commonly used. Which is correct?

This seat is reserved for/to Mr Abu. – Syafiq

“This seat is reserved for Mr Abu.” is the correct sentence. We never reserve something to someone.

We can allocate something to someone, though. Here is an example from the Internet:

All seats on board our tour coaches are numbered and allocated at the time of booking.

This seat is allocated to you not only for the journeys but also any excursions you may take whilst on holiday. (from the brochure of a British holidays and tours company)

Why ‘were’?

Here is a sentence taken from the Herald Sun: She was critical of the parents involved, who she said were angry and disgusted and did not believe their daughter when she first told of the abuse by her brother.

Why was “were” used in the sentence? – Loke

The plural verb “were” agrees with the subject of the relative clause, “who”. “Who” here is plural, because it is a relative pronoun standing for “the parents involved”.

The parents were the ones “who were angry and disgusted and did not believe their daughter...”

The whole sentence is in reported speech and “she said” comes as a kind of parenthesis in the middle of the relative clause “who were ... angry and disgusted ...”

To make its meaning clearer, the sentence could be rephrased to:

“She was critical of the parents involved and said they were angry and disgusted and did not believe their daughter when she first told of the abuse by her brother.”

Verb agreement

The following sentences are taken from a grammar book. Do you think the underlined word from each sentence should be replaced by the one in the brackets?

1. The farmer as well as the labourers are hard at work. (is)

2. A bunch of grapes as well as five oranges were given to him. (was)

3. Either he or his brothers has taken my books. (have)

4. Neither my father nor I is pleased at this news. (am) – Yu Siong

Yes, for all the four sentences and here’s why.

1 & 2. The subject does not include what comes after “as well as”. So in 1, the verb should be singular to agree with the singular subject, “the farmer”. In 2, “a bunch of grapes” can be followed by a plural verb in British English if the grapes are not seen as a unit. But here they are. So a singular verb should be used to agree with it.

3. In the structure beginning “Either + noun/pronoun or noun/pronoun”, the verb should agree with the noun or pronoun nearest to it. In the case of your sentence, the verb should agree with “brothers”, which is a plural noun.

4. The same rule applies to the structure beginning with “Neither + noun/pronoun nor noun/pronoun”. Here, the nearest pronoun is “I” and so “am” is used.

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