Thursday February 16, 2012
The letter ‘s’
YOUR QUESTIONS ANSWERED
By FADZILAH AMIN
I WOULD like to find out the proper way/method to use “s” in a sentence.
To my knowledge, we use “s’ for the plural form. However, as far as I know, this is not the only usage.
What is the difference between British and American spelling? – Cheong
‘S’
We use “s” to indicate plural nouns, e.g. houses, trees, animals, etc. But some plural nouns don’t end in “s”, e.g. the plural of child is children, and the plural of sheep is sheep.
We also use apostrophe “s” (’s) to indicate possession, e.g. “your mother’s book” or “Mary’s hair”.
You must be careful, though, because sometimes what looks like a possessive pronoun is actually a contraction. For example “it’s” does not indicate possession. It is a contraction (short form) of “it is”. The possessive form is “its”, as in “The cat wagged its tail.” Sometimes an apostrophe “s” (’s) is a contraction of “has”, as in “She’s already got the book.” where “She’s” is a contraction of “She has”.
By the way, we don’t say “alphabet S” but “letter S”. The alphabet we use consists of the whole set of letters from A to Z. It is called the Roman alphabet. The Greek alphabet consists of the set of letters from alpha to omega.
British and American Spelling
There are several differences. For example, when British English (BrE) uses –ou- in a word, American English (AmE) uses only –o-, as in colour/color, favour/favor, honour/honor. Also, when BrE uses the –re ending, AmE uses the –er ending, as in centre/center, litre/liter, kilometre/kilometer.
Take a look at the following site for more differences:
oxforddictionaries.com/words/british-and-american-spelling
The following online dictionaries also give you the AmE spelling of a word if it is different from the BrE spelling:
oald8.oxfordlearnersdictionaries.com/ and dictionary.cambridge.org/
‘Went’ and ‘gone’
I read this on an online news portal. This reply was given by a minister, who is supposed to be a law graduate, to a question from the online journalist.
“Why have I went to Mecca three times in two and a half months?”
Shouldn’t “went” be “gone”? – S.S. Rajah
You are right. It should have been “Why have I gone to Mecca three times in two and a half months?”
This is because the present perfect tense is used, and this should consist of :
have/has + past participle of the main verb
“Went” is the simple past tense of “go”, but “gone” is the past participle of “go”. “Gone” should have been used with “have” to make the verb “have gone”.
Bookstore boo-boo
A reputatable bookshop in Penang put up laminated notices informing that, “Lost of personal belonging is at your own risk.” Is it correct? Shouldn’t it be “Loss of personal belongings is your own responsibility”? Has our standard of English deteriorated so badly, that even a bookstore such as this one cannot construct a simple sentence? – MOE Disgraced
You are right. The noun “loss” and the plural “belongings” should be used in the phrase “loss of personal belongings”. Some bookshops and libraries have open shelves near the entrance, where you are asked to leave your bags and other items not allowed in the bookshop or library. Usually, there is a notice there that reads something like: “Leave your bags here at your own risk.” or “We are not responsible for the loss of personal belongings left here.”
Here is a quotation from the website of a museum and art gallery in England:
“As in many historic houses, large bags and luggage cannot be accommodated in the museum. Lockers are provided for them by the entrance (subject to availability).
Please be aware that you leave your belongings at your own risk and the museum is unable to accept responsibility for any loss or damage.”
(Notice at the website of Russell-Coates Art Gallery and Museum, Bournemouth, England; www.russell-cotes.bournemouth.gov.uk/yourvisit)
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